Understand, I am not saying that Christians cannot be intellectual. Many are, or were, such as C.S. Lewis, Thomas Aquinas, NT Wright, J.N.D. Kelly, Karlo Broussard, Brant Pitre (Pitre and Broussard are both southern, and Cajun at that, so much for stereotypes!) and many others. My French professor said (when I said that I like to read books), that I am (in French) very intellectual. I think she gives me too much credit.
I bring this up, because occasionally, I'll hear some Christians (usually Protestant, and, more specifically, Baptist), criticise philosophy. Usually based on, I would say a misrepresentation, of Colossians 2:8. Reading the verse in context, it seems to be a reference to a certain type of philosophy. You have to remember, that the type of people that the Colossians would have been dealing with. According to the Ignatius Catholic Study Bible that the term is used to refer to the Jewish way of life. It goes on to say (not word for word), "it is true, that every philosophy that disregards or denounces what God reveals as true, etc is vain". That being said, I want to point out, this is in no way universal amongst Baptists OR Protestants. The fact that people mistake the word "intellectual" for atheist, is kind of a problem. Christians NEED to be intellectual. We need to know philosophy. Aristotelian metaphysics is more useful than you think. If we can't tell people WHAT we mean by God, we are never going to convince them of his existence, and THIS requires philosophy.
Friday, May 29, 2020
Friday, May 22, 2020
Jesus is not an angel, and he really did rise from the dead
I'm going to use the fundamentalist Protestant pastors favourite argument here: "Don't believe me, look in your Bible!". Seriously. First of all, the argument that Jesus is Michael is, not only bizarre, but without scriptural or historical warrant. Some groups (JWs and their allies) will argue that Jesus is Michael the Archangel. But also human. Neither of these things seem possible. Check the verse they appeal to to prove their view, 1 Thessalonians 4:16, "For the Lord himself will descend from heaven with a cry of command, with the archangel's call, and with the sound of the trumpet of God; and the dead of Christ will rise first;" There's more there, but I want to focus on this. First of all, an archangel is simply a high ranking angel. The JWs mistake this for meaning there is only one archangel. There isn't (Tobit 12:15). Of course, the JWs don't consider Tobit scripture (and they are wrong), and it is unfortunate that Protestants don't, because right now, that would be very helpful for them. But, another thing, there is not a single shred of evidence that 1 Thess 4:16 is calling Jesus an angel, much less an archangel. This is an inference, not in the text. Now, another thing, Hebrews EXPLICITLY DENIES THAT THE SON is an angel. Check out Hebrews 1:5, "For to what angel did God ever say, 'you are my Son, today I have begotten you"? Or again, 'I will be to him a father, and he shall be to me a son"? There's plenty about Jesus and angels in the Good Book, but no verse saying that Jesus is one. Now, Jesus did rise from the dead. If you deny this, you are denying the overwhelming majority of Christians throughout the ages. There were groups that believed the Resurrection was spiritual, Gnostics. I am not sure whether or not the JWs believe that matter is evil, but this was the Gnostic's logic against Jesus rising from the dead. Now, back to the Bible. Lk 24:36-53, John 21:1-23, John 2:19-21, Acts 1:3, Rom 10:9, 1 Cor 15:4-8, 1 Cor 15:13-17. Jesus definitely rose from the dead. There is no evidence he did not, at least not from the Bible. No spiritual Resurrection, here. I think a big problem may be the JWs "New World Translation". Which is a terrible "translation", that was written using spiritualism by a former Catholic priest "correcting" the text. His name was Johannes Greber, look him up. The truth is, no translation is perfect (my quotes were all from the pretty good RSVCE), even the widely popular NIV, as good as some of it is, has some flaws (out of personal taste, I don't care for it, but some if it is rendered very well), but almost every serious Biblical scholar will tell you that the NWT does not do a very good job of translating, partially because it's not a translation.
Tuesday, May 12, 2020
Don't call yourself a Christian if you have a problem with the word "religion"
From the RSVCE (2nd edition): James 1:26-27,
"If anyone thinks he is religious and does not bridle his tongue but deceives his heart, this man's religion is in vain, Religion that is pure and undefiled before God and the Father is this: to visit orphans and widows in their affliction, and to keep oneself unstained from the world".
From the Douay Rheims:
"And if any man think himself to be religious, not bridling his tongue, but deceiving his own heart, this man's religion is in vain.
Religion clean and undefiled before God and the Father, is this: to visit the fatherless and widows in their tribulation: and to keep one's self unspotted from this world."
From the NIV:" Those who consider themselves religious and yet do not keep a tight rein on their tongues deceive themselves, and their religion is worthless. Religion that God our Father accepts as pure and faultless is this: to look after orphans and widows in their distress and to keep oneself from being polluted by the world." (the most popular Protestant translation seems really clunky to me).
From the KJV: "If any man among you seem to be religious, and bridleth not his tongue, but deceiveth his own heart, this man's religion is vain.
Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world."
From the NRSVCE
" If anyone among you thinks he is religious If any think they are religious, and do not bridle their tongues but deceive their hearts, their religion is worthless. Religion that is pure and undefiled before God, the Father, is this: to care for orphans and widows in their distress, and to keep oneself unstained by the world.s, and does not bridle his tongue but deceives his own heart, this one’s religion is useless. Pure and undefiled religion before God and the Father is this: to visit orphans and widows in their trouble, and to keep oneself unspotted from the world."
From the NABRE: "
If anyone thinks he is religious and does not bridle his tongue but deceives his heart, his religion is vain. Religion that is pure and undefiled before God and the Father is this: to care for orphans and widows in their affliction and to keep oneself unstained by the world."
This is not the only place that the word religion is used. Although, what I find really interesting is what the word means in Greek.(thrēskeia). According to Strong (2356), it means "religious worship, especially external, which consists of ceremonies". The Bible is telling us to do those external religious things. Think about that. Now, that word is not always used positively. The phrase "religion of angels" is very much negative in Colossians 2:18 (same Greek words are used). Some of the other words translated as religion are
theosebeian (which is also translated as godliness in 1 Tim 2:10 in some versions of the Bible). Of these, one of my personal favourites is eusebeias in 1 Tim 3:16, and 2 Tim 3:5. Strong 2150, uses the definition "piety (towards God), godliness, devotion, godliness.". I think the problem is, is that so many people mistakenly believe that religion means "legalism". Nope. It comes from the Old French "religio", via the Latin word "religare", and it means something like "to bind". In other words, if you are Christian, and you do not believe that Christianity is a religion, how exactly are you bound to Christ? Isn't that what a relationship with Christ would entail? How can you be his friend then? John 15:12-17. If Christ is not your religion, how can you die for him? So, when you say Christianity is a "relationship" and not a "religion", you are saying something that is quite impossible.
"If anyone thinks he is religious and does not bridle his tongue but deceives his heart, this man's religion is in vain, Religion that is pure and undefiled before God and the Father is this: to visit orphans and widows in their affliction, and to keep oneself unstained from the world".
From the Douay Rheims:
"And if any man think himself to be religious, not bridling his tongue, but deceiving his own heart, this man's religion is in vain.
Religion clean and undefiled before God and the Father, is this: to visit the fatherless and widows in their tribulation: and to keep one's self unspotted from this world."
From the NIV:" Those who consider themselves religious and yet do not keep a tight rein on their tongues deceive themselves, and their religion is worthless. Religion that God our Father accepts as pure and faultless is this: to look after orphans and widows in their distress and to keep oneself from being polluted by the world." (the most popular Protestant translation seems really clunky to me).
From the KJV: "If any man among you seem to be religious, and bridleth not his tongue, but deceiveth his own heart, this man's religion is vain.
Pure religion and undefiled before God and the Father is this, To visit the fatherless and widows in their affliction, and to keep himself unspotted from the world."
From the NRSVCE
" If anyone among you thinks he is religious If any think they are religious, and do not bridle their tongues but deceive their hearts, their religion is worthless. Religion that is pure and undefiled before God, the Father, is this: to care for orphans and widows in their distress, and to keep oneself unstained by the world.s, and does not bridle his tongue but deceives his own heart, this one’s religion is useless. Pure and undefiled religion before God and the Father is this: to visit orphans and widows in their trouble, and to keep oneself unspotted from the world."
From the NABRE: "
If anyone thinks he is religious and does not bridle his tongue but deceives his heart, his religion is vain. Religion that is pure and undefiled before God and the Father is this: to care for orphans and widows in their affliction and to keep oneself unstained by the world."
This is not the only place that the word religion is used. Although, what I find really interesting is what the word means in Greek.(thrēskeia). According to Strong (2356), it means "religious worship, especially external, which consists of ceremonies". The Bible is telling us to do those external religious things. Think about that. Now, that word is not always used positively. The phrase "religion of angels" is very much negative in Colossians 2:18 (same Greek words are used). Some of the other words translated as religion are
theosebeian (which is also translated as godliness in 1 Tim 2:10 in some versions of the Bible). Of these, one of my personal favourites is eusebeias in 1 Tim 3:16, and 2 Tim 3:5. Strong 2150, uses the definition "piety (towards God), godliness, devotion, godliness.". I think the problem is, is that so many people mistakenly believe that religion means "legalism". Nope. It comes from the Old French "religio", via the Latin word "religare", and it means something like "to bind". In other words, if you are Christian, and you do not believe that Christianity is a religion, how exactly are you bound to Christ? Isn't that what a relationship with Christ would entail? How can you be his friend then? John 15:12-17. If Christ is not your religion, how can you die for him? So, when you say Christianity is a "relationship" and not a "religion", you are saying something that is quite impossible.
Friday, May 8, 2020
Proving from the Bible that Protestantism isn't true.
Now, I do not want to be
accused of Protestant bashing, so Protestants should take note that I have a
healthy respect for scripture and admire them for their love on scripture. So, here we go.
Sola Scriptura, this one
is the easiest to disprove, as it is not taught anywhere in the Bible. Seriously, some folks like to quotes this:
(From the Douay Rheims, as that’s the version I have on
hand) “All scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to
correct in justice,
That the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every
good work. (2 Timothy 3:16-17). But, with everything, let’s read it in
context:
“But thou hast fully known my doctrine, manner of life,
purpose, faith, long-suffering, love, patience,
Persecutions,
afflictions: Such as came upon me at Antioch, at Iconium, and at Lystra: what
persecutions I endured, and out of them all the Lord delivered me
And
all that will live godly in Christ Jesus, shall suffer persecution.
But
evil men and seducers shall grow worse: erring and driving into error.
But
continue thou in those things which thou hast learned, and which have been committed to thee: knowing of whom thou hast
learned them;
And
because from thy infancy thou hast known the holy scriptures, which can
instruct thee to salvation, by the faith which is in Christ Jesus.
All
Scripture, inspired of God, is profitable to teach, to reprove, to correct in
justice,
That
the man of God may be perfect, furnished to every good work. (2 Timothy
2:10-17).
Useful and true, but it does not teach Sola
Scriptura. In fact, it isn’t even
implied in the text. That’s not to say
The Bible isn’t important, it is, it is THE most important book of all times (actually,
books, but still). I feel like this is
a really common thing amongst Protestants, they see a verse in the Bible and
say “see, that proves it, because they use the Bible”. It’s almost like they think Catholics don’t
really the Bible.
Also, if he knew it “from infancy”, or “childhood” as
some newer versions of The Bible say, and it really did teach Sola Scriptura,
then Protestants would have a logical problem, as it would have to be the Old
Testament. Seriously, the New Testament
was still being writing. The Bible is
important and useful for instruction, but does not teach that it alone is authoritative.
Sola Scriptura is impossible anyway, because a Protestant
cannot safely answer which books are in scripture. Why is it those 66 books and only those 66
books? Can they point to a verse in
scripture that says it is those 66 books?
No, because there isn’t one.
Faith
alone is another one that is certainly unbiblical, so, instead of using the
common argument from James (James 2:14-26), I am going to use Paul
himself. After all, if Paul so clearly
taught salvation by “faith alone”, we should be able to find it in the
Bible. So, let’s start with the verse
Martin Luther added the word “alone” to, remember, all quotes are from the
Douay Rheims:
“For
we account a man to be justified by faith, without the works of the law”.(Romans 3:28) Notice something? Nowhere in there does it say “alone”. In fact, read it IN CONTEXT. In fact, the entire chapter is about gentiles
and Jews in the context of Old Testament law and how it applies to
Christians. Seriously y’all, go read
it.
What
is really interesting to me, is Romans 6:1-4:
“What
shall we say then? Shall we continue in
sin, that grace may about?
God
forbid. For we that are dead to sin, how
shall we live any longer therein?
Know
you not that all we, who are baptized in Christ Jesus, are baptized in his
death?
For
we are buried together with him by baptism into death; that as Christ is risen
from the dead by the glory of the Father, so we also may walk in newness of
life”.
Sounds
like to me there is some kind of law we’re supposed to follow. Sounds to me a lot different than being saved
by “faith alone”. Our baptism seems to
imply that following Jesus means to actually do something. I’ll give you another.
Ephesians
2:8-9
“For
by grace you are saved through faith, and that not of yourselves, for it is the
gift of God;
Not
of works, that no man may glory”
Now,
that sounds fine and dandy. We’re saved
by faith, so works have no role, right?
Wrong. In fact, it always amazes
me that people don’t seem to know there is an Ephesians 2:10.
“For
we are his workmanship, created in Christ Jesus in good works, which God hath
prepared that we should walk in them”.
You
and I are quite literally made for good works.
How then can we say that faith alone is what justifies us? There is no way we can earn our salvation, we
can do good works, through grace, in faith.
Faith and works go together like hand-in-glove, Paul even talks about
the obedience of faith in Romans 1:5.
Okay,
so now we turn to Sola gratia. (See
Council of Orange, 529)
Actually,
Catholics believe this, so no problem there.
Christ
alone, okay, only Christ can save us, but this does not eliminate the need for
an ordained priesthood. In fact, for a
proper celebration of the Eucharist, we would need one. Remember, Jesus uses sacrificial language at
the last supper, Matthew 26:27-28:
“And
taking the chalice, he gave thanks, and gave to them, saying: ‘Drink ye all of
this.
For
this is my blood of the new testament, which shall be shed for many unto the
remission of sins.
And,
if you remember your Old Testament, you will know that blood is shed in the Old
Testament offerings. St. Matthew would
not have rendered this with sacrificial language if it was not supposed to be a
sacrifice. And not only that, it is
supposed to be a perpetual sacrifice, if Malachi 1:11 is anything to go by, and
this is what Jesus intended, going by Luke 22:19
“And
taking the bread, he gave thanks, and brake: and gave to them, saying: This is
my body, which is given for you. Do this for a commemoration of me”.
Now,
don’t be put off by the language. Some
modern Bibles do indeed say “memorial” or “in remembrance”. That isn’t the point. Jesus used sacrificial language, and told us
to do it. Since he used sacrificial language,
we can surmise it is a sacrifice. Now,
what class of people offers sacrifices?
Priests.
So,
we can infer from that, the Luther’s idea that the Eucharist must be a
sacrament or a sacrifice and can’t be both, is absurd.
Now,
with Soli Deo Gloria, most of what I can find is just insults towards Catholics
for venerating Saints. I guess
Protestants are unaware that Martin Luther held the Virgin Mary in high regard
(Personal Prayer Book, 1522), although he had a problem with intercession of
the Saints, Augsburg Confession of 1530 (Article 21).
But,
I can prove from the Bible, that intercessory prayers of Saints in Heaven and
angels are quite biblical.
First
of all, angels are probably the easiest.
Angels watch over children. Jesus
says this:
“See
not that you despise not one of these little ones: for I say to you, that their
angels in heaven always see the face of my father who is in heaven”. (Matthew 18:10)
Seriously,
if you know what the angels are doing before the throne of God, you would be
asking for their intercession.
Seriously, the Bible says this
“And
I saw seven angels standing in the presence of God; and there were given to
them seven trumpets
And
another angel came and stood before the altar, having a golden censer; and
there was given to him much incense, that he should offer of the prayers of all
the saints upon the golden altar, which is before the throne of God.
And
the smoke of the incense of the prayers of the saints ascended up before God
from the hand of the angel”. (Revelation 8:2-4)
Catch
that? It’s the angels that bring
Christian prayers to the throne of God.
Sounds like an intercessor to me.
So, what about people in Heaven?
Aren’t they dead? How could they
possibly hear all those prayers? Okay,
one, bad argument, that’s not what we’re saying, two, so what if they don’t
know what we’re saying? It’s ultimately
God that grants the prayer.
If
I say to my friend “hey, please pray for me”, do I really need to be specific
on WHAT I need prayer for? I think those
in Heaven may possibly be the same. I
should probably point out that there ARE humans in Heaven that are worshiping
the Lamb, seriously, read Revelation 5, but especially Revelation 5:8
“And
when he had opened the book, the four living creatures, and the four and twenty
ancients fell down before the Lamb, having every one of them harps, and golden
vials full of odours, which are the prayers of the saints.”
Now,
there is much more (seriously, read the Book of Revelation), but I just wanted
to get to the point.
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